1000 MCQ's Dental ADC Waysem (GRADED A) Questions and Answers Elaborations (Verified Answe | Exams Nursing | Docsity (2024)

Download 1000 MCQ's Dental ADC Waysem (GRADED A) Questions and Answers Elaborations (Verified Answe and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1000 MCQ's Dental ADC Waysem (GRADED A) Questions and Answers Elaborations (Verified Answers) 2023 1. For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is to, A. Avoid buccal pulp horn B. Avoid lingual pulp horn C. Remove unsupported enamel D. Conserve lingual dentine A. Avoid buccal pulp horn Explanation 1- avoid BUCCAL pulp horn 2- conserve ling. dentine So take A and B if available 2. For an amalgam restoration of a weakened cusp you should, A. reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance B. reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp C. reduce 2mm for retention form B. reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp Explanation F cusp = 0.5-1.5 mm acc. to occlusion. Cracked cusp = FLAT BASE 3. Before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC you should, A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid B. Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything C. Acid itch cavity then dry thoroughly A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid Explanation also scraping with actual cavity prep. 4. Which of the following statement about the defective margins of amalgam restorations is true? A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay. A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay. Explanation the larger the gap between the restoration and the tooth, the more the chance for rec. decay --> replace don't repair. 5. The retention pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed, A. Parallel to the outer wall B. Parallel to the long axis of tooth A. Parallel to the outer wall Explanation RULE OF "2" ??? 6. The most common cause of failure of the IDN "Inferior Dental Nerve" block is, A. Injecting too low B. Injecting too high A. Injecting too low Explanation Failure of inferior alveolar nerve block: 1- Anatomical: -accessory nerve supply (MH nerve, cervical cutaneous nerve C1, C2) -variable, variation in course of nerve OR foramen position, -bifid alveolar nerve or mandibular canal 2- Pathological: infection, inflammation, previous surgery; trismus 3- Pharmacological: chronic alcohol abuse, chronic narcotic drug abuse; 4- Psychological: fear, anxiety, apprehension; 5- Poor technique: this is the most common reason for failure. There are three most commonly occurring problems with this technique: -Inadequate mouth opening. -Improper needle placement: a) too low. b) too far forward (laterally) or backward (medially) of the target area (need to insert the 16. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in dentine caries? A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine B. Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation, sclerosis. C. Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine, demineralisation. A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine Explanation Zones of Dentine Caries (from superficial to deep): Decomposed dentine (V) Bacterial penetration (IV) Demineralisation (III) Dentinal sclerosis (II) Fatty degeneration (I) --> Reparative dentine (in pulp) 17. The nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type of nerve fibres? A. Afferent & sympathetic A. Afferent & sympathetic Explanation 1-Autonomic nerve fibers (sympathetic only): They innervate the smooth muscle cells of the arterioles and therefore function in regulation of blood flow in the capillary network. 2-Afferent (sensory) fibers: These arise from trigeminal n. Dentin sensitivity is explained by the 'hydrodynamic theory' = Movement of fluid in DT à activation of small, myelinated Aδ fibers causing sharp pain. Injury and inflammation later lead to the activation of unmyelinated C fibers (dull ache sensation), which are found in the Sub-odontoblastic layer and the deep pulp. 13. The percentage of total dentine surface / dentinal tubules 0.5mm away from pulp is, A. 20% B. 50% The diameter and density of dentinal tubules (DT) are greatest near the pulp. DT have a diameter of 3 μm near the pulp, 1.2 μm in the middle of the dentin, and 0.8 μm at DEJ. -Total DT = 21% of total coronal dentine volume. -At pulp --> DT = 27% -At DEJ --> DT = 19% *SO, IF ASKING ABOUT DENTINE/DT SURFACE AREA AT THE PULP = 70% *IF ASKING ABOUT DT/DENTINE = 27% 16. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in dentine caries? A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine B. Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation, sclerosis. C. Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine, demineralisation. A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine Explanation Zones of Dentine Caries (from superficial to deep): Decomposed dentine (V) Bacterial penetration (IV) Demineralisation (III) Dentinal sclerosis (II) Fatty degeneration (I) --> Reparative dentine (in pulp) 17. The nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type of nerve fibres? A. Afferent & sympathetic A. Afferent & sympathetic Explanation 1-Autonomic nerve fibers (sympathetic only): They innervate the smooth muscle cells of the arterioles and therefore function in regulation of blood flow in the capillary network. 2-Afferent (sensory) fibers: These arise from trigeminal n. Dentin sensitivity is explained by the 'hydrodynamic theory' = Movement of fluid in DT à activation of small, myelinated Aδ fibers causing sharp pain. Injury and inflammation later lead to the activation of unmyelinated C fibers (dull ache sensation), which are found in the Sub-odontoblastic layer and the deep pulp. 18. Which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually curve towards? A. Facial / buccal/ B. Lingual C. Mesial D. Distal A. Facial / buccal/ Explanation This is why exo movement should be more BUCCALLY to avoid fracturing P root. 19. What is the common appearance of vertical tooth fracture? A. Perio abscess like appearance B. Displacement of fragments A. Perio abscess like appearance Explanation J-shaped lesion = endo-perio lesion. 20. Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp capping? A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure. B. Removal of caries has exposed the pulp C. When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure. Explanation B may indicate DIRECT pulp capping. 21. Following trauma to tooth, the next day there was no response to pulp tests you should? A. Review again later B. Start endodontic treatment C. Extraction of tooth A. Review again later Explanation Follow up as it can be false negative following trauma. 22. What is the main purpose of performing pulp test on a recently traumatised tooth? A. Obtain baseline response B. Obtain accurate indication about pulp vitality A. Obtain baseline response Explanation For future comparison 29. Patient received heavy blow to the right body of the mandible sustaining a fracture there. You should suspect a second fracture to be present in, A. Symphysis region B. Left body of the mandible C. Left sub-condylar region D. Right sub-condylar region E. sub-condylar region C. Left sub-condylar region 30. Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are, A. Elevated temperature and nausea B. Palpitations and malaise C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea D. Erythema and pain E. Pallor and tremor C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea Explanation Pitting Oedema due to decreased venous return. Short breath & Pulmonary oedema 31. A cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring 1 cm in diameter is visualized in radiograph and confirmed by aspiration biopsy; which method of treatment would you consider? A. Extraction of the central incisor and retrieving the cyst through the socket B. Exteriorizing the cyst through the buccal bone and mucosa C. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by tooth removal. D. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment. E. Routine orthograde endodontic treatment followed by observation. D. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment. Explanation D is correct, HOWEVER THE RCT SHOULD BE DONE BEFORE THE APICECTOMY. 32. A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by, A. Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal spontaneously B. Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants C. Curettage and dressing of the defect D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure E. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy. D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure Explanation long standing OAC --> becomes epithelialized --> OAF --> needs surg. correction. 33. The most significant finding in clinical evaluation of parotid mass may be accompanying, A. Lympha adenopathy B. Nodular consistency C. Facial paralysis D. Slow progressive enlargement E. Xerostomia C. Facial paralysis Explanation -Most common malig. S.G. tumor = MUCOEPIDERMOID CARCINOMA, esp. MINOR S. Gs. -Most common malig. PAROTID tumor = ADENOID CYSTIC CARCINOMA. 34. As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true? A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling D. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection. B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve Explanation Raising a ling. flap will decrease chances for serious damage to the ling. nerve. 35. Endogenous morphine like substances which can control pain are known as,** A. Bradykinins B. Peptides C. Prostaglandins D. Serotonins E. Enkephalins E. Enkephalins Explanation Endogenous Opioids = Enkephalins, Endorphin & Dynorphins 36. Platelets play an important role in haemostasis; which of the following describes this role? A. They convert fibrinogen to fibrin B. They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured vessels C. They initiate fibrinolysis in thrombosis D. They supply fibrin stabilizing factors E. They supply proconvertin for thromboplastin activation B. They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured vessels Explanation Platelet AGGREGATION is the 2nd stage of Hemostasis. Platelets aggregate (by TxA2) to form platelet plug which adheres to B.V. wall by VWF. 42. Which one of the following is true about oral hairy leukoplakia? A. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue C. Usually caused by Candida species D. Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue E. Always associated with pernicious anaemia B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue Explanation Caused by EBV Histo.: KOILOCYTES 43. Which of the following have a tendency to recur if not treated? A. Giant cell granuloma B. Lipoma C. Fibrous epulis D. Haematoma E. Pulp polyps A. Giant cell granuloma Explanation Also LIPOMA but less recurrence & rare in oral cavity (tongue is the most common site). 44. Basal cell carcinoma is characterised by, A. Rapid growth and metastasis B. Local cutaneous invasion C. Inability to invade bone D. Poor prognosis E. Radiation resistance F. Can not metastasise to the bone B. Local cutaneous invasion Explanation Rarely metastasize (Best Prognosis). But can invade bone. 45. Carcinoma of the tongue has a predilection for which of the following sites?** A. Lateral border anteriorly B. Anterior dorsal surface C. Posterior dorsal surface D. Lateral border posteriorly E. No preferred location D. Lateral border posteriorly Explanation L.N. metastasis esp. if involves base of tongue (post. 1/3). 46. A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotic for oral infection, this is an example of, A. Type I allergic reaction B. Nervous disorder C. Side effect of the drug D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction E. Pyloric stenosis C. Side effect of the drug Explanation Clindamycin is the most common example (causes Pseudo-membranous colitis). Also Metronidazole & Tetracycline. 47. Trichloroacetic acid, a strong acid, has been used by dentists for chemical cautery of hypertrophic tissue and aphthous ulcers; its mechanism of action is A. Thermodynamic action B. Activation of tissue enzymes C. Osmotic pressure D. Protein precipitation (PPT) E. Neutralization D. Protein precipitation (PPT) Explanation Not used anymore 48. Which of the following adverse reaction of oral contraceptives is the most common and the most serious A. Hypotension B. Hepatotoxicity C. Uterine neoplasia D. Thromboembolism disorder E. Decreased resistance to infection D. Thromboembolism disorder Explanation Thrombosis esp. limbs Less common side effect is Hypertension. rarely cause cancer (Breast & Uterus). 49. A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:** A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation B. Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation C. Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets D. Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network E. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation Explanation In small doses aspirin inactivates "irreversibly" platelet enzyme cyclooxygenase, hence thromboxane A2 is not synthesised. The effect of enzyme inactivation lasts till the life of platelet (8-10 days), so new platelets required to control bleeding (i.e. if aspirin is to be stopped --> min. 7 days. N.B. Aspirin can affect clotting if taken in high doses. 50. A patient who recently had a calculus removed from the kidney presented with radiolucent area in the left maxilla with clinical evidence of swelling. The disease that you would immediately suggest is, A. Diabetes B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Osteoporosis E. Adrenal insufficiency C. Hyperparathyroidism 55. Exposure of the patient to ionising radiation when taking a radiograph is NOT REDUCED by: A. The use of fast film B. The addition of filtration C. Collimation of the beam D. The use of an open and lead lined cone E. Decreasing the kilovoltage KvP E. Decreasing the kilovoltage KvP Explanation Because decreasing KvP will require more exposure time (more radiation). 56. X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both sides of a support material. The emulsion contains particles of, A. Silver nitrate crystal B. Metallic silver in gelatine C. Silver bromide in gelatine D. Silver nitrate in gelatine E. Potassium bromide in gelatine D. Silver nitrate in gelatine Explanation Silver halide (usually bromide) 57. The inverse Square Law is concerned with intensity of radiation using type D film of 200mm target to film distance, the exposure time was 0.25s. What would be the exposure for the same situation with 400mm target to film distance? A. 0.5s B. 1.0s C. 2.0s D. 0.25s E. 0.125s B. 1.0s Explanation Inverse square law: I1/I2 = D22/D12 -If you double the distance of the target --> exposure = X4 -If you triple the distance of the target --> exposure = X9 58. You wish to purchase a dental X ray machine and have the choice between 60kVp and 70kVp machines. With single change from 60kVp to 70kVp what would the approximate affects on exposure time? A. No effect B. Half the time C. Double D. Quarter E. Triple the time B. Half the time Explanation Half value layer 59. When no radiation shield is available, the operator should stand out of the primary x ray beam and a distance from the patient's head of at LEAST: A. 0.5 metres B. 1 metre C. 1.5 metres D. 2 metres E. 3 metres D. 2 metres Explanation Ideally 6 feet = 180 cm The operator of the dental unit must stand at least six feet from the useful beam or behind a protective barrier. Stand at an angle of from 90 to135 degrees from the central ray. Do NOT stand in the path of the primary x-ray beam. 60. The obturating material of choice for primary teeth following complete pulpectomy is, A. Zn phosphate cement and formcresol combination paste B. Quick setting hydroxide cement C. Zinc oxide and eugenol cement D. Gutta-percha E. Polycarboxylate cement C. Zinc oxide and eugenol cement Explanation Obturation of primary teeth must not interfere with the normal exfoliation of the tooth this requires Resorbable material EXCEPT if there is no permanent successor. Materials used in primary teeth: -ZnO/E -Iodoform paste 61. When primary molars are prepared for stainless steel crowns, should the depth for reduction of the proximal surface be similar to the depth of the buccal and lingual surfaces? A. Yes; reduction of all wall is similar for best retention B. No, proximal reduction is greater to allow the crown to pass the contact area C. No, the buccal surfaces has the greatest reduction to remove the cervical bulge D. Yes, all undercuts are uniformly removed so that the steel crown can be seated E. No, because of lateral constriction, the lingual surface needs greatest reduction B. No, proximal reduction is greater to allow the crown to pass the contact area Explanation Corrected to B. Buccal reduction is slight to retain cervical bulge for retention (Cameron page 81). Greatest reduction is the occlusal = 1.5 m 62. 8 years old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed; presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the following should be considered? A. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide B. Place calcium hydroxide directly on the exposed pulp C. Pulpotomy using formocresol D. Pulpectomy and immediate root filling E. Pulpectomy and apexification A. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide Explanation Cvek "partial" pulpotomy using Ca(OH)2 or MTA --> for APEXOGENESIS. 63. Which primary teeth are LEAST affected with the nursing bottle syndrome? A. Maxillary molars B. Maxillary and mandibular canines C. Mandibular incisors D. Maxillary incisors E. Mandibular molars C. Mandibular incisors Explanation Early childhood caries (ECC) lower As & Bs least affected due to being covered by tongue during suckling. 70. Which of the following organisms are pathognomonic of acute necrotic ulcerative gingivitis? A. Spirochaetes and fusobacterium SP B. Spirochaetes and eikenella corrodes C. Polymorphs and lymphocytes D. Actinobacillus actinomycetes comitans oral capnocytophaga E. Porphyromonas gingivalis and prevotella intermedia A. Spirochaetes and fusobacterium SP 71. In testing for mobility, which of the following statement is true: A. Heavy pressure must sometimes be used to test mobility B. Only lateral mobility is significant in diagnosis and treatment of chronic inflammatory periodontal disease C. Hyper mobility indicates that the tooth supporting structures have been weakened D. During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested individually for hyper mobility E. Reliance on radiograph is essential D. During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested individually for hyper mobility Explanation D 100% Also C is correct Take both if available. 72. Which of the following is true regarding gingivosis (Desquamative gingivitis) A. It is caused by hormononal imbalance B. Is seen only at or after menopause C. Is frequently caused by lichen planus D. Is a variant pregnancy gingivitis E. Is related to nutritional disturbance C. Is frequently caused by lichen planu Explanation Not a disease entity, but a sign of systemic disease ( 2L & 2 P commonly) 73. The treatment of Localised Juvenile Periodontitis is frequently supplemented with tetracycline because the flora involved is predominant: A. Aerobic B. Strictly anaerobic C. Facultative anaerobic or microaerophilic D. Resistant to other antibiotic C. Facultative anaerobic or microaerophilic 74. The most accurate way to evaluate the effectiveness of root planning is by: A. Inspect the root surface with an instrument for root smoothness B. Use air for visual inspection C. Activate a curette against root surface and listen for a high pitched sound which indicates a smooth, hard surface. D. Evaluate the soft tissue at the end of the appointment for a decrease oedema and bleeding E. Evaluate the soft tissues 10 to 14 days later. E. Evaluate the soft tissues 10 to 14 days later. Explanation absence of BOP A is correct if asking about how to check SRP tech. was properly done. 75. Probe pressure at the sulcus of pocket should not be more than enough to: A. Feel the top of the crestal bone B. Balance the pressure between fulcrum and grasp C. Define the location of the apical and the calculus deposit D. Feel the coronal end of the attached tissues E. Limit the lateral pressure D. Feel the coronal end of the attached tissues Explanation probing pressure = 25 g 76. A curette may be inserted to the level of the attached gingiva with minimal trauma to the tissues because of: A. Has a round base B. Is easy to sharpen C. Has rounded cutting edges D. Provides good tactile sensitivity E. Has two cutting edges A. Has a round base Explanation D is correct for detecting calculus and also for minimizing trauma to pocket wall. 77. Tetracycline hydrochloride conditioning of root surfaces in periodontal surgery is to: A. Sterilise the root surface B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast C. Aids in re-mineralising the root surface D. Assist the binding of lamina dura E. Prevents post operative infections B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast Explanation root conditioning materials: 1- citric acid (commonest) 2- tetracycline 3- EDTA 78. Of all the factors that increase the resistance of teeth to dental caries, THE MOST EFFECTIVE is, A. The general nutrition of a child during the period of tooth formation B. The intake of fluoride during the period of enamel mineralization and maturation C. Periodic topical fluoride application by dental health care following tooth eruption D. Sufficient intake of calcium and Vitamin D during the period of enamel mineralization and maturation C. Periodic topical fluoride application by dental health care following tooth eruption Explanation topical Fl is far more effective than systemic Fl (Cameron). 85. the pulp horn most likely to be exposed in the preparation of large cavity in permanent molar tooth is, A. Mesio-Lingual in upper first molars B. Mesio-Buccal in upper first molars C. Disto-buccal in lower first molars D. Mesio-Lingual in lower first molars E. Mesio- Buccal in lower first molar B. Mesio-Buccal in upper first molars Explanation it's B dental anatomy books E in American decks! 86. The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether, A. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment B. There will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for proper retention of the crowns C. At least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for adequate periodontal support D. The aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant the planned reconstruction A. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment Explanation Zarb prosthodontics 87. In planning and construction of a cast metal partial denture the study cast, A. facilitate the construction of custom/special trays B. minimize the need for articulating C. provide only limited information about inter ridge distance, which is best assessed clinically D. can be used as a working cast when duplicating facilities are not available A. facilitate the construction of custom/special trays Explanation Zarb prosthodontics 88. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of partial denture with distal extension can best be avoided by, A. Applying Stressbreakers B. Employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth C. Maintaining tissue support of the distal extension D. Clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area E. Maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension C. Maintaining tissue support of the distal extension Explanation American decks 89. Which of these muscles may affect the borders of mandibular complete denture, A. Mentalis B. Lateral pterygoid C. Orbicularis oris D. Levator angulioris E. Temporal C. Orbicularis oris Explanation Zarb prosthodontics 90. Jaw relation of an edentulous patient has been established. The maxillary cast has been mounted on an articulator without a face bow. You decide to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4mm this will necessitate, A. Opening the articulator 4mm B. A new centric relation to be recorded C. A change in the condylar guide settings D. An increase in the rest vertical dimension B. A new centric relation to be recorded Explanation A correct if face bow is used. Zarb prosthodontics 91. Following extraction of the molar teeth **(wrong answer) A. The ridge height is lost more from the maxilla than from the mandible B. The maxillary ridge will get more bone lost from the palatal aspect than the buccal C. The mandibular arch is relatively narrower than the maxillary arch D. Compared with the pre-resorption state, the mandibular ridge will lose more bone from the lingual aspect than the buccal one. D. Compared with the pre-resorption state, the mandibular ridge will lose more bone from the lingual aspect than the buccal one Explanation Max --> more lab/buc resorption Mand --> more ling. resorption Zarb prosthodontics 92. Which of the following is a major disadvantage to immediate complete denture therapy, A. Trauma to extraction site B. Increased potential of infection C. Impossibility for anterior try in D. Excessive resorption of residual ridge C. Impossibility for anterior try in Explanation Zarb prosthodontics 93. For dental caries to progress in dentine, A. The dentine must contain soluble collagen B. Enamel must contain glycoproteins C. Diet must contain simple carbohydrate D. Diet must contain polysaccharides E. Pulp must contain complement C. Diet must contain simple carbohydrate Explanation for bacteria to utilize it. 100. What is the main purpose of using Stress breakers: A. To distribute the load between teeth and ridges B. To distribute the load between the clasps and the face end of the saddle C. It relieves the abutment tooth of occlusal loads that may exceed their physiologic strength C. It relieves the abutment tooth of occlusal loads that may exceed their physiologic strength Explanation Decks 101. What is Miller's theory about A. Acidogenic micro-organism B. Proteolytic A. Acidogenic micro-organism 102. A tooth under occlusal trauma shows A. Bone resorption B. Necrosis of the pulp C. Hypercementosis D. Triangulation E. All of the above E. All of the above 103. Which is the more retentive form for an anterior bridge A. ¾ partial veneer crown ?????????????????????????? no accurate answer??????????????????????????? B. Class V inlay C. Pinlay Veneer D. Class III inlay with pins no accurate answer???????????????????? 104. What would not cause an airway obstruction A. Laryngeal muscles paralysis B. Flexion of the neck C. Airway obstruction D. Extension of the neck D. Extension of the neck Explanation Head tilt chin lift maneuverer clears airway 105. As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the following is true? A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the incidence. C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zinc oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology Explanation Dry socket 106. A patient with impacted canine; by moving the X ray tube distally the canine moves distally too; where do you expect the impacted canine: A. Labially impacted B. Palatally impacted B. Palatally impacted Explanation SLOB principle 107. A 10 years-old boy presents with small greyish white lesion surrounded by a red halos on the soft palate and tonsillar pillars, small vesicles are found. He hasfever and pain in the ear. The MOST probable diagnosis is? A. Herpangina A. Herpangina Explanation But fever is rare with Coxsackie Virus 108. The SNA angle on cephalogram, best signifies the relationship of, A. Mandible to cranial base B. Maxilla to cranial base C. Maxilla to mandible D. Mandible to porion E. Maxilla to Frankfort plane B. Maxilla to cranial base Explanation Angles : SNA--> max. to cranial base relation SNB--> mand. to cranial base relation ANB--> max. to mand. relation 109. A child has sustained a traumatic exposure of primary central incisor, he presents to you for treatment two days after the injury. Which of the following should be considered? ? A. Pulpotomy and Ca(OH)2 ??????????????????????? B. Pulpotomy and formocresol C. Direct pulp capping D. Pulpectomy (RCT) D. Pulpectomy (RCT) Explanation obturate with ZnO/E 110. 8 years old child presents with all permanent incisors erupted, but yet only three permanent first molars are erupted. Oral examination reveals a large gingival bulge in the un-erupted permanent area. A panoramic radiograph shows the alveolar emergence of the un-erupted permanent first molar crown and three fourth tooth developments, there are no other radiographic abnormalities. The most appropriate diagnosis and treatment plan in such situation would be:** A. Dentigerous cyst; surgical enucleation. B. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure C. Ankylosis of the molar, removal of the first molar to allow the second one to erupt into its place. D. Ankylosis of the molar, surgical soft tissues exposure and luxation of the molar E. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure and orthodontic traction B. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure Explanation Berkovitz 118. Which of the following is true in relation to dental decay? A. Foods that require vigorous mastication will increase salivary flow and reduce PH B. Tooth brushing immediately after meals is most effective because demineralisation has already started C. Food that encourage the mastication will increase the number of lymphocytes in saliva and thus reduce decay D. Vigorous mastication will increase plaque PH and lead to reduce of decays E. The Stephan Curve describes an increase in PH during a meal with resultant of demineralisation 119. The BEST treatment for alveolar abscess: D. Vigorous mastication will increase plaque PH and lead to reduce of decays Explanation 119. The BEST treatment for alveolar abscess: A. Endontic treatment or extraction B. Incision and drainage alone C. Extraction D. Endodontic A. Endontic treatment or extraction Explanation If I & D through RCT or exo --> correct If it has the word "alone" --> mostly they mean soft tissue incision --> so TAKE A 120. In developing plaque; the adhesive polymer produced by streptococcus mutans is synthesis from: A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Sucrose D. Lactose C. Sucrose 121. Fluoridation is the adjustment of the fluoride content of a community water supply to optimum levels for caries prevention. Which of the following statement is correct? A. Tooth decay declines by 90% to 95% B. Tooth decay declines by 45% to 55% C. Greater reduction in smooth surface caries from in pit and fissures D. Fluoridation increases vulnerability to osteoporosis C. Greater reduction in smooth surface caries from in pit and fissures Explanation 20-40% 122. Clinical /Proximal in some papers/ caries on radiographs are seen: A. Smaller than the real one B. Larger than the real one C. The same size A. Smaller than the real one Explanation usually the clinical caries is larger and deeper than it appears in the x-ray 123. A cusp fracture immediate to Class II inlay can be detected by, A. History B. Visually C. Radiograph D. Percussion E. Touching the tip of the cusp / Pressure on the cusp/ E. Touching the tip of the cusp / Pressure on the cusp/ Explanation biting test 124. Recession of gingiva of several anterior teeth caused by exposure and softened cementum; what would you do? A. Scrap the soften cementum and apply fluoride B. Scrap the soften cementum and use GIC C. Class V amalgam B. Scrap the soften cementum and use GI Explanation to avoid pulpal damage, decay & sensitivity 125. Patient with class II division II; the lateral incisor is missing. You want to make a fixed bridge which of the following is suitable: A. Rocket bridge using central incisor as abutment B. Cantilever using central incisor C. Fixed bridge using the central incisor and bicuspid C. Fixed bridge using the central incisor and bicuspid Explanation heavy bite (Class II Div 2) 1 & 3 abut. 126. When repairing a fracture of a lower complete denture, which statement is correct: A. Self curing will distort the denture B. Cold curing will not be strong enough because of small area of attachment C. There is a possibility of occlusal disharmony C. There is a possibility of occlusal disharmony 127. In regard to Electrical Vitalometer: A. To test recently erupted teeth B. Check response for an electrical stimulant C. Reveal potential necrosis B. Check response for an electrical stimulant Explanation EPT -Albright synd (F.D. of bone). -Von Recklinghausen's disease (multiple neurofibroma). 135. Von Willebrand disease is, A. Haemophilic disease B. Bacterial Endocarditis C. Congenital cardiac disease D. Rheumatic fever A. Haemophilic disease Explanation It's a bleeding disorder that can also be associated with clotting disorder (due to defect in factor VIIIc). 136. What technique is used in the extraction of permanent 1 A. Rotation movement molars: B. Lingual movement C. Buccal movement C. Buccal movement Explanation B-L but more Buccal movement to avoid fracturing the buccaly curved palatal root. 137. Drugs contraindicated with Monoaminoxidase Inhibitors (MAOI): A. Barbiturates B. Pethidine C. Local Anaesthesia with felypressin D. Narcotic analgetics E. Salicylic acid B. Pethidine Explanation All are actually C/I with MAOI except C. But to chose from the available options --> B 138. Blow to mandible causing fracture in molar's right side region, you expect a second fracture of: A. Sub condylar of right side B. Sub-condylar of left side C. Fracture of symphysis B. Sub-condylar of left side Explanation Fractured body of mand. --> suspect a second fracture --> opposite sub-condylar 139. What is the most common fracture of Class II amalgam restorations: A. Isthmus because of insufficient depth B. Internal fracture C. Marginal ridge site A. Isthmus because of insufficient depth Explanation due to: 1-insuffecient material bolk 2-no bevel/roundation of Axiopulpal angle 140. What is the advantage of composite over silicate resin: A. Less shrinkage B. Less surface erosion C. Less water absorption D. All of the above D. All of the above Explanation Silicate resin is composed of --> -powder sodium alumino Fl and 20 percent glass -liquid phosphoric acid so --> it is acid base reaction Advantages: -anticariogenic -good insulator coz CTE close to that of the tooth Disadvantages: -discoloration -soluble shrinkage -brittle and poor marginal integrity -pulpal irritation due to acidity 141. The setting expansion of casting investment is approximately A. 0 to 0.1% B. 0.1 to 0.5% C. 0.5 to 1% D. 1.1 to 1.6% B. 0.1 to 0.5% American Decks 142. The contraction of gold alloys on solidifying is approximately: A. 0.5% B. 2.5% C. 1.40% D. 3% C. 1.40% American Decks 143. The un-polymerized monomer in Self-cured resin is approximately:** A. 0.5% B. 2.5% C. 5% (IT IS 0.5% IN HOT CURE) D. 10% C. 5% (IT IS 0.5% IN HOT CURE) Explanation American Decks 151. To obtain a desired projection of occlusal loads, the floor of the occlusal rest should, A. Be convex B. Slope from the marginal ridge towards contact?? of abutment C. Slope from contact?? of abutment towards the marginal ridge D. Be concave E. Does not slope from the marginal ridge towards contact?? of abutment F. None of the above D. Be concave McCRACKEN 152. The transfer of stress by tensile action employs T. reaction; a process that within limits: A. Fails to promote bone growth B. Promotes bone growth and maintenance C. Fails to promote maintenance D. None of the above B. Promotes bone growth and maintenance Explanation Remember backward growth of Ramus 153. Which of the following areas CANNOT be determined by survey analysis of partially edentulous cast? A. Areas to be revealed as blocked out to properly located rigid parts of a frame work B. Areas to be shaped to properly located rigid parts of framework C. Areas used for guideline planes D. Areas used for retention E. Areas used for support F. Depth of rest seats F. Depth of rest seats Explanation Because it's intra-coronal 154. In partial dentures the guidelines "Guiding Planes" serve to: A. Aid in balancing occlusion B. Assure predictable clasp retention C. Form right angle with the occlusal plane D. Eliminate the necessity for precision attachment E. Eliminate the necessity for a posterior clasp B. Assure predictable clasp retention Explanation Guide removal and insertion of the clasp 155. Rough surface/Porosity of porcelain is a result of: A. Lack of compression B. Sudden high temperature A. Lack of compression Explanation American Decks 156. The most common failure in constructing porcelain to metal is: A. Improper metal framework B. Rapid heating A. Improper metal framework Explanation Usually leading to thin porcelain or chemical bond defect (metal contamination). 157. Prolonged GIC setting time can be achieved by, A. Cool down the slab B. Increase the amount of distilled water A. Cool down the slab Explanation -Mix first half of powder to liquid to obtain the maximum length of working time. -The reaction is thixotropic -->The viscosity decreases when the shear rate increases. working time. -Also putting the powder (not the liquid) in fridge --> prolong setting time. 158. The maxillary canine is missing. The best way for making Cantilever bridge is on: A. Both premolars B. Incisors and premolars A. Both premolars Explanation -Incisors and premolars --> will not be a cantilever. -still not recommended to use cantilever for missing canine. 159. Ante's Law: Dr. Ante in 1926 stated that, A. "The combined pericemental area of the abutment teeth should be equal to or greater than pericemental area than tooth or teeth to be replaced A. "The combined pericemental area of the abutment teeth should be equal to or greater than pericemental area than tooth or teeth to be replaced Explanation Not very much applicable nowadays 160. Why would you decide to replace the anterior missing teeth for partial denture using bridge: A. Aesthetic B. Overjet C. Overbite A. Aesthetic Explanation Main adv. of fixed restorations: 1-esthetics 2-function 3-less damage on perio status Explanation also furcation area esp. primary molars 171. The cause of development of lateral canals is: A. Cracks in Hertwig's epithelial root sheath A. Cracks in Hertwig's epithelial root sheath Explanation during tooth development 172. Transillumination is used to detect :** A. intrinsic tooth coloration B. caries C. Pulp-stones D. Hemorrhagic pulp E. Calculus B. caries Explanation Also cracks and sinus (max. & frontal) examination. 173. What is the most common malignant lesion that occurs in the oral cavity: A. Ameloblastoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Osteosarcoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma Explanation Commonest site: Postrolat. of tongue. 174. After replantation of an avulsed tooth 2 ½ hours after incident; the most likely diagnosis is, A. External resorption B. Internal resorption C. Pulp stones A. External resorption Explanation replacement resorption and ankylosis. 175. The emergency treatment for painless necrotic pulp is: A. Drainage through canals B. None B. None Explanation It's not an emergency unless with pain/swelling. 176. Swelling after RCT is mainly caused by (Being asked as: What is the most frequent cause of pain which occurs several days after obturation?, too): ==comments == is this answer goes to both conditions, i.e. after obturation and after the visits?? === A. Entrapped Bacteria, or the presence of bacteria in the periapical region. B. Underfilling the root canal system C. Overfilled root canal A. Entrapped Bacteria, or the presence of bacteria in the periapical region. Explanation -If between visits --> A (commonly due to over-instrumentation). -If ass. with swelling immed. after a RCT visit --> NaOCl accident. -If some days after obturation --> C 177. How do you treat dentine before applying GIC A. Conditioner B. Pumice & water A. Conditioner Easy 178. The first step in the treatment of erosion is: A. Pumice and water B. Spray with Na-bicarbonate C. GIC .First: polish with pumice & water Second: 179. A kinematic face bow is used for recording (to locate) A. Hinge movement (position) axis A. Hinge movement (position) axis Explanation -KINEMATIC FACE BOW --> determine and locate the exact hinge axis points (ACTUAL VALUE/ HINGE AXIS) -Arbitrary Face bow --> locate approximately the hinge axis is (within a range of 5 mm) 180. Why do you polish the teeth before seating of a partial denture: A. To smooth the rough surface B. To minimise the retention of plaque C. To increase the adoptability of occlusal rests C. To increase the adoptability of occlusal rests Explanation 1- increase adaptability of the occ. rests 2- minimize plaque retention 181. The contact between artificial and natural teeth in partial dentures: A. Slight touch in the balancing side B. Should not be in touch at all A. Slight touch in the balancing side in CD --> Bilateral balanced 190. What is the main reason of ordering another periapical radiograph of the same tooth: A. To disclose the other roots B. To observe tooth from different angle A. To disclose the other roots Explanation to see what you couldn't see yet you need to see! 191. The ideal length of RCT is, A. At the apex B. As far as you can obturate C. 0.5 - 1.5 mm before the apex C. 0.5 - 1.5 mm before the apex Explanation 0.5-1 mm from radiographic apex (i.e. at CDJ which is the anatomic apex ... end of pulpal tissues). 192. Retentive part of clasp position is, A. Below the survey line. B. Above survey line C. As close as possible to the gingival margins A. Below the survey line. Explanation should cross the survey line and enter the undercut area --> to provide retention. 193. To minimize the load on a free-end saddle partial denture: A. Use teeth with narrow Buccal-Lingual dimension B. Use mucco-compressive impression A. Use teeth with narrow Buccal-Lingual dimension Explanation And to minimize tipping forces on abutment tooth (RPD): -maximize tissue support -use stress breaker 194. Retentive Clasps: A. Alloy with high modulus of elasticity B. Clasp arm is gingivally located B. Clasp arm is gingivally located Explanation Comparison of occlusally and gingivally approaching clasps: -An occlusally-approaching clasp à only the terminal third should cross the survey line and enter the undercut area. -A gingivally approaching clasp à contacts the tooth surface only at its tip while the remainder of the clasp arm is free of contact with the mucosa of the sulcus and the gingival margin. So, the length of the gingivally approaching clasp arm can therefore be increased to give greater flexibility which can be a positive advantage when it is necessary to clasp a premolar tooth or a tooth whose periodontal attachment has been reduced by periodontal disease. 195. Internal resorption of RC usually is A. Asymptomatic B. Painful A. Asymptomatic 196. When doing pulpotomy with Formocresol you will find: A. Necrosis B. Mummification B. Mummification Explanations Action of Ca(OH)2: •Liquefaction necrosis of the superficial pulp •Neutralization of toxicity in deeper layers •Coagulative necrosis...Irritation of adjacent pulp •Minor inflammation response... Hard tissue barrier == PULPOTOMY with: -FC --> devitalization/mummification (fixation & progressive FIBROSIS). -FS & MTA --> preservation -BMP --> regeneration Now FS is the most commonly used for primary tooth --> it forms a surface metal- protein clot (coagulation) at pulpal exposure surf --> protect against irritation. REMEMBER: Indirect PC is C/I in primary teeth due to very high failure (int. resorption). 197. Ledermix is used in RCT to relieve pain because of, A. Antibiotics B. Corticosteroid B. Corticosteroid Explanation Ledermix is a CS/AB preparation consists of: -Triamcinalone acetonide -Ca chlor-tetracycline It's an intra-canal med. (water soluble) Uses: -relief the pain after pulp extirpation & apical periodontitis -internal resorption Do not use in case of infection (abscess) --> flareups. 198. In infected root canals, the two most common micro-organisms are: A. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus A. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus Explanation Endodontic microbiology: Intact teeth with necrotic pulp: --> strict anaerobes more than 90% of the bacteria Endodontic infections: --> Gram-negative bacteria, especially species of Porphyromonas and Prevotella that are dark (black) pigmented. Failed RCT/persistent infection: --> Enterococcus faecalis In general Endo. Infections have: -Aerobes: Streptococcus & some staphylocossi -Anaerobes: Peptostreptococcus Enterococci (E. faecalis) Bacteroides (Porphyromonas, Prevotella) Actinomyces 209. Overdenture advantage is,** A. Proprioceptors A. Proprioceptors Also: - Decrease bone resorption. - Maintain the alveolar bone height 210. In electro surgery, the tissue may stick to the electrode because of , A. The current intensity is too high B. The current intensity is too low B. The current intensity is too low 211. Hybrid composite resin is used in posterior teeth because it: A. Contains micro filled B. Better colour matching A. Contains micro filled High wear resistance & acceptable polish-ability as it incorporates more microfillers & less resin matrix. 212. The best way of getting good retention in full veneer crown is by, A. Tapering B. Long path of insertion B. Long path of insertion Crown retention depends on: 1) Path of insertion (long = 4mm min.) 2) Taper (parallel walls best) 213. Wrought metal is to be, A. Marble B. Quenched C. Subjected /undergone/ to cold treatment during processing (annealed) C. Subjected /undergone/ to cold treatment during processing (annealed) Annealing = controlled cooling of material to enhance ductility & strength Ductility = ability of material to undergo deformation under tensile stresses Malleability = ability of material to deformation of compressive stresses 214. Where do you use the floss as a guide to the rubber dam: A. Through the contacts. A. Through the contacts. To minimized leakage. N.B. wedgets are used to retain RD 215. In young children what is the commonest finding after dental complaint: A. Acute periodontal abscess B. Chronic periodontal abscess C. Apical abscess D. Chronic alveolar abscess C. Apical abscess Rapid inflam. process & spread of infection. Bone is more cancellous. 216. In periodontitis, the most common finding is, (Main feature of suprabony pocket) A. Horizontal bone resorption B. Vertical bone resorption C. Angular bone loss A. Horizontal bone resorption B. Vertical bone resorption Explanation A Horizontal Bone Loss: -common in advanced gen. periodontitis -ass. with suprabony pockets B.Vertical Bone Loss: -most common in periodontitis -ass. with infrabony pockets So the answer depends on the question (needs clarification). 217. Periodontitis occurs in, A. Alveolar bone B. Periodontal membrane C. Alveolar bone and gingiva B. Periodontal membrane Periodontitis by definition is inflam. of PDL However periodontal diseases are usually preceded with gingivitis (unless of endo origin), and affect the alveolar bone, as well. 218. The normal range of gingival depth "Epithelial attachment" in healthy mouth is: A. 1-2 mm B. 0-3 mm C. 2-3 mm D. 0-5 mm B. 0-3 mm In healthy individual: -Histologic sulcus depth = 1.8 mm -Probing depth = 2-3 mm -sulcus depth generally ranges 0-3 mm Junc. epith. attachment = 0.97 mm C.T. attachment = 1.07 mm 219. The commonest cells which are found in periodontal membrane are:** A. Fibroblast B. Epithelial cells C. Erythrocytes D. Vest cells of malaise E. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes A. Fibroblast 60-65% 228. The most characteristic allergic reaction to drugs is, A. Skin rush with swollen of lips and eyes A. Skin rush with swollen of lips and eyes 229. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be used for patient with, A. Diabetics B. Rheumatic fever Actually shouldn't be used with any of those unless: -DM uncontrolled (for infection prophy) -Rheum. fever in ingig. Australians (for inf. endocarditis prophy). There should be a correct option as mentioned above or other correct options. 230. What is not an effect of (drug??): I. Sedation II. Excitement III. Analgesia IV. Hypnosis V. General anaesthesia A. none of the above B. All of the above C. I and II D. II and III E. I, IV and V What's the drug??? If it is Barbiturates --> the answer is III (Analgesia). 231. Opioid analgesics reduce pain by the release of which naturally appearing product: A. Serotonin B. Histamine C. Enkephalins C. Enkephalins Endogenous morphine like substance 232. Toxicity as a result of anaesthetic solution can be seen more when: A. Injection in supine position B. Injection into vascular area C. Injection without vasoconstrictors D. Intravenous injection D. Intravenous injection This is why aspiration before injection is needed esp. in IANB 233. When taking Mono Amino Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI); which drugs are contra indicated: I. Barbiturate II. Local anaesthetic III. Pethidine IV. Acetyl salicylic acid A. All of the above B. None of the above C. I, II and III D. II, III and IV I, III, IV are contraindicated. 234. Which of the following may be caused by a newly placed restoration which interferes with the occlusion A. Apical abscess B. Pulpal necrosis C. Apical periodontitis C. Apical periodontitis Premature contact --> apical periodontitis which may later cause pulpitis 235. The most important factor in surgical removal of impacted teeth is, A. Removal of enough bone B. Preoperative assessment C. The flap design D. The use of general anaesthetic B. Preoperative assessment to assess the risks involved before the actual procedure 236. The most important indication of malignant lesions is: A. Pain B. Paresthesia C. Teeth movement D. Tooth resorption B. Paresthesia 237. A Patient with lower denture complaining of paresthesia of the lower lip, the most common cause is, A. Pressure on mental foramen B. Pressure on the genioglossi Mylohyoid muscles A. Pressure on mental foramen 238. The nerve supplying the TMJ is, A. Auriculo Temporal Nerve B. Nerve to masseter C. Facial nerve A. Auriculo Temporal Nerve A branch of post. div. of Manbibular nerve NB: After parotidectomy, the nerves from the Auriculotemporal Nerve that previously innervated the parotid gland can reattach to the sweat glands in the same region. The result is sweating along the cheek with the consumption of foods "Frey syndrome" 239. In cleidocranial dysplasia, which of the following would you expect to find: A. Early lose of primary teeth B. Multiple un-erupted teeth and pseudo anodontia B. Multiple un-erupted teeth and pseudo anodontia -supernimerary teeth -multiple unerupted teeth -malocclusion -hypoplasia of clavicle(s) -delayed closure of skull sutures 247. Which of the following conditions is not classified as a white lesion: A. Fordyce's granules B. Smoker's keratosis C. Leukoplakia D. Lichen planus A. Fordyce's granules Yellowish granules (ECTOPIC SEBACIOUS GLANDS) on Buccal mucosa, RMA & vermilion border 248. Angular cheilitis in edentulous patient with complete denture is a result of: A. Deficiency of .. vitamin B. Low vertical dimension B. Low vertical dimension Also hypovitaminosis, BUT NOT NECESSARILY in pts. with CD. 249. The absence of lamina dura in radiographs is a feature of all of these except for:** A. Paget's disease B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Fibrous dysplasia D. Osteogenesis imperfecta E. Hyperthyroidism D & E 100% 250. Which is usually found when a systemic infection is present: A. Regional lymph node B. Fever C. Cellulitis B. Fever 251. How would you diagnose a periapical abscess: A. Pain on percussion B. Pain when eating hot food C. Pain when eating cold food D. The thickness of periodontal ligament on X-Ray A. Pain on percussion 252. A diabetic patient with moist skin, moist mouth and weak pulse; what would you do: A. Give glucose B. Administer O2 C. Administer adrenaline D. Inject insulin A. Give glucose That's HYPOglycemia 253. How would you treat Epidermoid Carcinoma: A. Excision B. Excision and extraction of teeth C. Radiation D. Surgery and radiation D. Surgery and radiation 254. In which direction you would extract a deciduous upper molar: A. Rotation B. Buccally C. Lingually B. Buccally 255. An impression with elastomer in custom tray has been taken for crown preparation; it will be two days before the impression gets to the laboratory for construction of the crown. Which impression material is preferred? A. Polyether B. Thiokol or meraptan rubber C. Condensation silicone D. Vinyl polysiloxane D. Vinyl polysiloxane Also Polyether is kept sealed. 256. A large amalgam core is to be condensed around several pins in a vital molar tooth; what type of amalgam mix would you prefer: A. A large mix to ensure hom*ogeneity B. A large with extra mercury to give easier manipulative qualities C. Several small mixes, sequentially triturated D. Several small mixes with varying mercury/alloy ratios E. A basic mix to which additional mercury is added as needed C. Several small mixes, sequentially triturated 257. Micro-leakage at the attached enamel-composite resin interface is most likely to be due to: A. Hydrolysis of the filler phase of the composite B. Hydrolysis of the resin phase of the composite C. Bacterial acid formation dissolving the enamel D. Salivary pellicle growth at the interface E. Setting contraction of the composite resin E. Setting contraction of the composite resin Polymerization shrinkage 258. The optimum cavosurface angle for occlusal amalgam surface is: A. 45-60° B. 70-85° C. 45-80° D. 95-110° E. 130-150° D. 95-110° Amalgum is better in compressive strength than in tensile 259. A major difference between light cured and chemical cured composite is that during setting or in function the light cured material tends to: A. Seal the margins better and completely B. Exhibit less wear on time C. Undergo greater colour change D. Shrink more rapidly E. Posses greater fracture toughness D. Shrink more rapidly with the light source 268. A teenager has swelling involving his upper lip, the corner of his nose and a region under his left eye. The swollen area is soft, fluctuant and pointed on the labial plate under his lips on the left side. His body temperature is 39°. What is the first thing you would do after taking history and temperature: A. Refer him to physician B. Anaesthesise all of the maxillary left anterior teeth to provide instant relief C. Give him an ice pack to be placed on the area to control the swelling D. Take radiograph and test vitality of his teeth E. Write prescription for antibiotics and delay treatment until swelling is reduced D. Take radiograph and test vitality of his teeth Then initiate RCT 269. The prognosis of teeth with apical resorption is : A. Poor B. Good if apex can be sealed C. Dependant upon periapical surgery D. Contingent upon systemic antibiotic therapy combined with treatment of the canal B. Good if apex can be sealed 270. The term TUGBEN?? is related to ( "When used in connection with a master Gutta Percha cone in endodontics)" : A. Tensile strength of the gutta percha B. Consistency of gutta percha C. Size of the cone D. Fit of the cone in the apical 1 or 2 mm E. Length of the cone D. Fit of the cone in the apical 1 or 2 mm TUG-BACK Action 271. In root canal therapy it is generally accepted that the ideal root filling, A. Should extend to the level of the apex to minimize irritation B. Should extend slightly through the apex to ensure a complete seal C. Should extend to the dento cemental junction for healing D. The extension of the filling is not critical C. Should extend to the dento cemental junction for healing 272. Mesiobuccal root of maxillary first molars MOST COMMONLY have: A. One canal with one foreman B. One or two canals with one foreman C. Two canals with one foreman D. Two canals with two foremen C. Two canals with one foreman in 96% 273. The most common cause of porosity in porcelain jacket crowns is, A. Moisture contamination B. Excessive firing temperature C. Failure to anneal the platinum matrix D. Excessive condensation of the porcelain E. Inadequate condensation of the porcelain E. Inadequate condensation of the porcelain 274. The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether, A. the inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment B. there will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for proper retention of the crowns C. at least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for adequate periodontal support D. the aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant the planned reconstruction A. the inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment 275. An advantage of metal-ceramic crowns, compared wit full ceramic crowns for restoring anterior teeth is, A. Palatal reduction may be of minimal thickness B. Overall conservative for tooth structure C. Ability to watch the appearance of adjacent natural teeth D. Less laboratory time A. Palatal reduction may be of minimal thickness 276. In cementing Maryland or Roche bridges, the effect is generally to, A. Lighten the colour of the teeth by the opacity of the cement B. Darken the colour of the abutment by the presence of metal on the lingual C. Have no detrimental colour effect D. Darken the abutment teeth by incisal metal coverage C. Have no detrimental colour effect 277. The minimal labial tooth reduction for satisfactory aesthetics with porcelain fused to metal crown is, A. 1mm B. The full thickness of enamel C. 1.5 mm D. 2.5mm E. One third of the dentine thickness C. 1.5 mm 278. The gingival portion of natural teeth differs in colour from the incisal portion because the : A. Lighting angle is different B. Gingival and incisal portions have different fluorescent qualities C. Gingival area has a dentine background D. Incident light is different C. Gingival area has a dentine background 279. In bridge work, which of the followings terms is NOT CORRECT: A. A retainer could be a crown to which a bridge is attached to B. A connector connects a pontic to a retainer or two retainers to each other C. The saddle is the area of the edentulous ridge over which the pontic will lie and comes in contact with pontic D. A pontic is an artificial tooth as part of a bridge C. The saddle is the area of the edentulous ridge over which the pontic will lie and comes in contact with pontic 288. The Fovea Palatinae are: A. Foramina covering the lesser palatine nerves and vessels B. Morphologically related to the formation of the premaxilla C. Located on either sides of the midline close to the junction of the hard and soft palate D. Closely related to the rugae of the palate C. Located on either sides of the midline close to the junction of the hard and soft palate 289. Which of the following restoration material's strength is not effected by pins: A. Amalgam B. Composite resin B. Composite resin 290. Which one of following statement about Overdenture is not correct: A. Greater occlusal loads can be applied by the patient B. Retention and stability are generally better than with conventional complete denture C. Alveolar bone resorption is reduced D. The retained roots are covered by the denture thus protecting them from caries and periodontal diseases D. The retained roots are covered by the denture thus protecting them from caries and periodontal diseases 291. Which of the following is a major disadvantage to immediate complete denture therapy: A. Trauma to extraction site B. Increased the potential of infection C. Impossibility for anterior try in D. Excessive resorption of residual ridge C. Impossibility for anterior try in 292. Brown skin pigmentation does not occur in: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Von Willebrand's syndrome C. Addison's desease B. Von Willebrand's syndrome 293. Which statement BEST describes plaque: A. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and can not be rinsed off teeth B. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and can be rinsed off teeth C. It is a soft film composed mainly of none calcified bacteria and can not be rinsed off the teeth D. It is a soft film composed mainly of dextran and can not be rinsed off the teeth E. It is a soft film composed mainly of dextran and can be rinsed off teeth. C. It is a soft film composed mainly of none calcified bacteria and can not be rinsed off the teeth 294. The gingiva of a child is diagnosed on the basis of all of these except of: A. Contour of gingival papilla B. Sulcus depth C. Contour of Nasmyth membrane D. Tight filling of gingival collar C. Contour of Nasmyth membrane = primary enamel cuticle 295. Which one of the following statement is correct, A. The remnants of Ameloblast contribute to the primary enamel cuticle B. the last secretion of the odontoblast is cementum X C. The last secretion of the ameloblast is the acquired of enamel cuticle D. The remnants of odontoblast form the primary enamel cuticle A. The remnants of Ameloblast contribute to the primary enamel cuticle Q. 96 for details 296. In regard to the glass of quartz particles of filling restorative resin; the microfill resins tend to have, A. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing strength B. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength C. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing strength D. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength B. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength Also: -lower modulus -more flow/wetting -less fracture strength -less physical properties (strength) -better optical properties -don't use in stress bearing areas 297. Mercury is dangerous when it turns into vapour form because of, A. It is accumulative and causes liver poison B. It is accumulative and causes kidney poison C. It induces neoplasia in the liver D. It is accumulative and causes brain poison E. It induces neoplasia in the brain D. It is accumulative and causes brain poison 298. The elastic limit may be defined as the **, A. The maximum stress under tension that can be induced without failure B. The maximum elongation under tension that can be measured before failure C. The minimum stress required to induce permanent deformation of a structure D. Minimum stress in structure E. Maximum strain that can be measured. A. The maximum stress under tension that can be induced without failure Elastic limit (Yield Point): the maximum amount of stress a material can feel and still recover to its original shape (without permanent deformation 299. Rank the following impressions materials according to their flexibility A. Alginate> Polysulphide> Silicone> Zinc Oxide Eugenol B. Silicone> Alginate> Polysulphide> Zinc Oxide Eugenol C. Alginate> Polysulphide> Zinc Oxide Eugenol>Silicone D. Alginate> Silicone> Polysulfide> Zinc Oxide Eugenol E. Alginate> Zinc Oxide Eugenol> Silicone> Polysulphide A. Alginate> Polysulphide> Silicone> Zinc Oxide Eugenol Alginate> Polysulphide> Silicone> Polyether> ZnO/E 300. Denture resins are usually available as powder and liquid that are mixed to form a plastic dough; the powder is referred to as,** A. Initiator B. Polymer C. Inhibitor D. Monomer E. Dimer B. Polymer Liquid = monomer 309. How many ppm (Parts Per Million) of fluoride are present in water supply in case of temperate climate:** A. 1 ppm B. 2 ppm C. 8 ppm D. 1.2 ppm A. 1 ppm 0.7 ppm in hot weather 1.2 ppm in cold weather 310. The difference between deciduous and permanent teeth is: A. Deciduous teeth have a higher pulp horns and larger pulp chambers B. Deciduous teeth have flatter contact areas C. Deciduous teeth have thinner enamel surface D. All of the above D. All of the above ALSO --> E. rods curved occlusally --> so no beveling in the ging. seat of Class II (unlike permanent). 311. The most resistant filling materials to fill class IV cavities are: A. Resins with silicone dioxide (SiO2) B. Resins with glass or quartz C. Silico-phosphate D. Silicates B. Resins with glass or quartz RMGIC 312. With dentin bonding agent, you apply: A. First acid etching to dentine and then bonding agent B. Bonding agent directly to dentine C. Chelating agent (EDTA) and bonding agent A. First acid etching to dentine and then bonding agent But less etching time compared to Enamel 313. What is the best way to apply aspiration before injection: A. Short, sharp pressure backwards B. Pressure for 2 to 3 seconds C. Long pressure D. Turning the needle 90° between two aspirations A. Short, sharp pressure backwards 314. The method you will use to fill root canal of maxillary lateral incisor is: A. One major Gutta Percha cone B. Laterally condensed C. Laterally above condensed B. Laterally condensed 315. What controls the occlusion:. A. Teeth B. Receptors in periodontal membrane C. Proprioceptors D. Neuromuscular receptors E. TMJ F. All of the above F. All of the above 316. How would you extract 35? A. Rotation B. Lingually C. Labially A. Rotation Rotation Exo: -upper centrals -lower 2nd premolars -supernumerary teeth 317. Why do you extract lower 8's by directing the extraction lingually:** A. Because of the roots direction B. Thinner bone C. Lingual deviation B. Thinner bone External oblique ridge (buccaly) is thick 318. What the maximum dose of 2% lignocaine without vasoconstrictors:** A. 5 ml B. 10 ml C. 50 ml D. 100 ml B. 10 ml 5 cartridges 319. Where do Maryland bridges lose retention often: A. Resin-metal B. Resin enamel C. Resin layer A. Resin-metal 320. What is the function of gypsum-binder in the investment:** A. Setting and hydroscopic B. Strength and rigidity B. Strength and rigidity Calcium phosphate hemihydrate 321. Where is the retentive position on teeth according to the survey line: A. Below the height of contour B. Next to gingival margins A. Below the height of contour 322. In regard to distal free end saddles; what is TRUE: A. Will require relining more often than a denture supported with teeth A. Will require relining more often than a denture supported with teeth due to more bone resorption in alveolar ridges 333. Which of the following is false in regard to Cleft-Palate? A. May be submucous B. More common in males than females C. Predispose to speech defects, orthodontics problem and hearing loss D. Patients are more likely to have cardiovascular defect than the general population. B. More common in males than females That's true for cleft lip 334. Which of the following statement is correct for a periodontal disease:** A. The finger pressure is enough for mobility diagnosis B. A communicable disease C. X ray after intra alveolar surgery is sufficient for diagnosis healing D. Systemic diseases have no effects on it E. ZoE paste will accelerate healing B. A communicable disease Not very sure, but Only D can be correct. However I beleive "E" says ZnO/E pack will NOT accelerate the healing ---> if that's the case, then E is the answer. 335. The major cause of jacket crown breakage is, A. Inclusion of platinum foil B. Use of weak cementum C. Voids of porcelain D. Porcelain is thinner than 1mm D. Porcelain is thinner than 1mm 336. Pontic replacing upper first molars in a bridge should: A. Slightly compress soft tissues B. Be clear of soft tissues C. Be just in contact with soft tissues C. Be just in contact with soft tissues 337. A labially displaced anterior tooth is restored with a gold core porcelain jacket crown so that it is in line with the arch; the crown will appears: A. Short B. Long C. Narrow D. Wide C. Narrow 338. What is NOT characteristic of root canal filing materials ("obturation material") A. Tacky adhesive to walls B. Radio opaque C. Not irritating D. Quick in setting D. Quick in setting 339. The best location of pin in class II inlay is, (This question has X marked next to it, what ever that means) A. Where the biggest thickness is B. Mesial and distal angle C. Contact area No answer 340. Class V composite resin restorations can be polished, A. 24 hours after application B. Immediately after application C. 3 to 4 days D. 3 to 4 weeks E. Not at all B. Immediately after application 341. Caries which is close to the pulp chamber; on x rays you find 'dens in dente'; the right treatment is: A. Zinc oxide eugenol cement and amalgam B. Pulpectomy C. Pulpotomy D. Calcium hydroxide on pulp and amalgam D. Calcium hydroxide on pulp and amalgam unless pulpal status indicate pulpotomy or pulpectomy (RCT). 342. Dental plaque produces: A. Chelation B. Dental caries C. Acids C. Acids 343. The main advantage of amalgam with high content of Cu is: A. Better marginal sealing B. Less corrosion C. Better tensile strength D. Higher and immediate compressive strength B. Less corrosion Less gamma-2 phase 344. The major disadvantage of self-threaded pins is: A. Friction locked B. Too expensive C. Not all sizes available D. May cause tooth cracking D. May cause tooth cracking 345. In which class of cavities do composite restorations show most durability: A. I B. II C. IV D. III E. V D. III 346. How much space do you need to cap a weakened cusp with amalgam: A. 1mm B. 1.5mm C. 2mm D. 2.5mm C. 2mm